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Let's simplify the question. A person is maternally Jewish as far as they know. If they do a current technology full DNA test and it comes back that with little or zero DNA related to the Levant (currently where Israel and parts of Egypt sit) are they still Jewish? Can they still say that they can trace themselves to Mt Sinai? Are they still in exile?
There are some cultures tracing on the bloodlines. But there might be some tracing on the authentic spirits. For example, not all the Chinese were Chinese. When Japanese came to China for including themselves into a Chinese dynasty, the Japanese commented “China is just a name of land”. Wherefore, they did not even recognized that the existence of the Chinese enthnitics.
There came another more dated example: the Mongolian Ghen heard a guy was elevated the emperor of “China”. The prince spat on the ground and commented “I thought the emperor of the celestial lands shall be termed the son of Heaven. And this man………..”
I gtg run now. Sorry, I am having difficulties finishing this post now.
There's no concept in the Torah of being genetically Jewish. you are either halachically Jewish, or you are not. Why over complicate this with modern secular concepts?
So explain to us if one is not genetically connected to the original Jewish people how can they trace themselves to Mt Sinai or be in exile at all?
those two aren't in conflict. If my mother converted according to Jewish law and had a child with a non-Jew, I am 100% Jewish with no connection to Sinai;iIf I converted I am 100% Jewish with no connection to Sinai. And in each case, I am in exile because there is no temple, no messiah and no ingathering of Jews.
Talmud is Torah. To think otherwise places one outside of normative Judaism.
No it is not. Moses's writings and teachings are not in the Talmud as it is written in the Sacred Tur'rh (Torah).
Quote:
Originally Posted by theflipflop
There's no concept in the Torah of being genetically Jewish. you are either halachically Jewish, or you are not. Why over complicate this with modern secular concepts?
The phrase 'Son(s) of...' denotes the passing of genetics from father to child. It is in all the sacred scriptures. Matrilineality is a by-product of false teachings.
No it is not. Moses's writings and teachings are not in the Talmud as it is written in the Sacred Tur'rh (Torah).
Clearly, your position is driven by your not being Jewish, let alone Orthodox. There is nothing wrong with this, but it presents a rift which cannot be overcome, so there is no reason to continue the "yes", "no" back and forth.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Soular
The phrase 'Son(s) of...' denotes the passing of genetics from father to child. It is in all the sacred scriptures. Matrilineality is a by-product of false teachings.
Well, sometimes it can mean that...take I Chronicles 22:9--10 for example, or Job 1:6 or Psalms 2:7. Do those indicate the passing of genetic material from a father to a son? If you say "yes" then the rift is even wider.
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