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“. .For “everyone who calls on the name of JEHOVAH (not Lord; not God; not Jesus; not Savior; not Allah) will be saved.” However, how will they call on him in whom they have not put faith? How, in turn, will they put faith in him of whom they have not heard? How, in turn, will they hear without someone to preach?”” (Romans 10:13-15)
“For God is not unrighteous so as to forget YOUR work and the LOVE YOU SHOWED FOR HIS NAME, . . .” (Hebrews 6:10)
Who is he talking to? ONLY JEHOVAH’S WITNESSES LOVE HIS NAME! No one else has adopted it, so he will not forget their work and reward them with eternal life.
Do you love Jehovah’s name? Then why not bear it with pride, the way Jehovah’s Witnesses do?
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Church members do not know Jehovah by his name. How will they call on him in faith? They are taught that he is 3 different persons in one, that he cruelly tortures and burns people in eternal torment, which means that they do not know him at all. You cannot have faith in someone you do not know - right?
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The Jews now have a nameless God to which they can direct no one, so that argument can very quickly be dismissed.
About the “grammatical impossibility,” we find this interesting note:
In Hebrew:
Jeremiah’s name is YIRMIAH. Abraham’s name is AVHAMON. Judah’s name is YAHUDAH. Isaiah’s name is YESAYAHU. Zedekiah’s name is SIDQIVVAHU, John is JEHOHANAN and Sarah’s name is SARAVAH.
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Since there were/are no vowels in Hebrew, the pronunciation of those names were determined by common usage, as recognized by the community using the language.
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Here’s your problem:
You seem to have no difficulty pronouncing those names, even though their particular vowel sounds were/are unknown. But when it comes to YHWH - huge difficulty. Why? Why would anyone not want to use the name of the true God? It is a trumped-up excuse not to use Jehovah’s name!
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Why do other religions not teach about Jehovah’s great name? Jehovah himself reveals the reason:
“. . .They are thinking of MAKING MY PEOPLE FORGET MY NAME by means of their dreams that they keep relating each one to the other, just as their fathers forgot my name by means of Ba′al.” (Jeremiah 23:27)
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“Nevertheless, Moses said to the [true] God: “Suppose I am now come to the sons of Israel and I do say to them, ‘The God of YOUR forefathers has sent me to YOU,’ and they do say to me, ‘WHAT IS HIS NAME?’ What shall I say to them?” ……Then God said once more to Moses: “This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, ‘JEHOVAH the God of YOUR forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob, has sent me to YOU.’ This is my name to time indefinite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation.” (Exodus 3:13,15)
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So - we know what his name is and we love it. You give no indication that you do.
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>(^)<
Wilson
This thread was asked of Jewish perspective not the Christian teachings on why you think the Jewish perpective is wrong.
Quote:
I read and speak Arabic.
I read and speak both fluently and also studied on reading Aramaic. Through years of travel I understand the different dialects of both from Northern Africa to Saudia Arabia. Thus I understand why or how the different pronounciations occurred. And thus when I see English translations, I can see the errors. So thus if only the other posters could read the Hebrew/Aramaic/Arabic versions and translate for themselves that they would see the errors in translation and not follow the rote version of someone elses translation.
Close...Close... If you looked at the word in hebrew and tried to read it literally it would actually sound out as y'huh or y'hoh as the third letter is silent by itself and takes on the pronounciation of the letter that preceeds it. This is why when you see two of them together then they create the vvv sound. Actual hebrew uses the second letter of the hebrew language Bet (be sound) and uses the secondary pronounciation as Vet (ve sound). An Eiyen would be pronouned as a W.
Any Jew would not pronounce it. Adonai (means Sir) is used for formal prayer and Hashem (The Name) for general informal reading. In Judiasm saying the actual name is disrespectful as its putting yourself on the same level.
Would you even a allow a young child to call an adult by their first name? Most likely not. Expectation is Mom, Dad, Uncle, Aunt, Sir, Ma'am, Mister, Misses, etc.......... Thus the same logic follows.
Thus:
Just curiuos,what do you guys think of Jehovahs witnesses using the name to pray? Disrestpectful
What do you think would happen to such individuals? Not an earthly consideration. a person is judged (upon leaving this plane of existence) upon everything in their lives not single incidents.
Why did Jews cease to use his name? The general population never did. Only the high priest (or most senior rabbi) would actually know the proper name and be able to pronounce it correctly.
But another thread for you to question is how Elohim (the g_d) became Allah (g-ds name (even though Al- means The-))
That's funny because the Jehovah's Witnesses operate by the exact opposite logic. Their whole thinking is that God is your best friend. Would you call your best friend Brother, Sister, Sir, Ma'am, Mrs., Mr., etc.? No. You'd call them John or Mary or whatever. Jehovah wants to be your best friend and that's why he should be called Jehovah. (Also they don't capitalize the third person in the readings, or "he" when they refer to Jehovah God...at least not in braille.) They think it's disrespectful to reduce God to just a title and not use his personal name.
In replacing God’s name with titles, Bible translators make a serious mistake. They make God seem remote and impersonal, whereas the Bible urges humans to cultivate “intimacy with Jehovah.” (Psalm 25:14) Think of an intimate friend of yours. How close would you really be if you never learned your friend’s name? Similarly, when people are kept in ignorance about God’s name, Jehovah, how can they become truly close to God?
And thus when I see English translations, I can see the errors. So thus if only the other posters could read the Hebrew/Aramaic/Arabic versions and translate for themselves that they would see the errors in translation and not follow the rote version of someone elses translation.
So true.
According to Rabbi Marc Gellman of G-d Squad fame, "One of the most important things to understand when quoting the Bible (the Hebrew Bible or the Christian Testament) is that it was not written in English. This means you're not only reading a translation from Hebrew or Greek, but you're also often reading an interpretation masquerading as a translation."
As an example of this "interpretation masquerading as a translation", further quoting Rabbi Gellman, "The Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible (and the text used by Jerome to translate the Bible into Latin in the 4th century), famously translates the Hebrew verse 'and behold a young woman shall give birth' as, 'and behold a virgin shall give birth.' The Hebrew word for virgin is betula, but the word used in Isaiah 7 is alma, which just means a young woman. Obviously, if there was a verse in the Hebrew Bible predicting that a virgin would give birth, this would indeed be a stunning prediction and proof text of Jesus' virgin birth. Unfortunately, for Christians who want this to be the verse, it is not the verse."
It is true if Allaah as written as 2 words it would be Al-Lah two words meaning approximately the Highest. But it is written as a one word Name
Keep in mind Arabic and Hebrew are dialects of the same Language. The letters are nearly identical except for the script. Looking at the words Allah and Elohim it should be apparant both words are virtually identical
When written in Arabic it is: الله Alif-Lam-Ha
Elohim when written in Hebrew is: Aleph Lamed Hey Mem אלוהים
Quote:
Originally Posted by NeilVA
But another thread for you to question is how Elohim (the g_d) became Allah (g-ds name (even though Al- means The-))
It's a double L in Arabic, hence the English transliteration Allah. So it's literally Al-Lah. There is also a shadda on the two lam (L's) and a mini-alif above the shadda. That's because Allah actually derives from Al-Ilah--so the "Al" is not doubling as the meaning of "God". The second syllable in Al-lah is morphemic (has meaning as a word unit) though it tends to get dismissed since -ah is often just an ending in Arabic without much semantic meaning beyond being feminine. But in this case it's the actual root of the word, stemming from ilah meaning "god". alihah means gods and Al-lah means "the one and only God".
In other words, the root for "God" isn't used to say "the" in Arabic. The article part of "al-Lah" gets confused with being the root for God when in fact the true root is hidden between the lams and the heh as a result of an ancient inconsistent practice of not always writing out the long alif.
This thread was asked of Jewish perspective not the Christian teachings on why you think the Jewish perpective is wrong.
I read and speak both fluently and also studied on reading Aramaic. Through years of travel I understand the different dialects of both from Northern Africa to Saudia Arabia. Thus I understand why or how the different pronounciations occurred. And thus when I see English translations, I can see the errors. So thus if only the other posters could read the Hebrew/Aramaic/Arabic versions and translate for themselves that they would see the errors in translation and not follow the rote version of someone elses translation.
You read and speak Arabic but thought that the al- was the part of the world "Allah" that means "God"?
You read and speak Arabic but thought that the al- was the part of the world "Allah" that means "God"?
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Allah (g-ds name (even though Al- means The-))
No the llah part. I'm not going to sit here and give 1000's of years of history on the formation of words and how they have changed over the years. If you need/want that, then go and learn the languages. After you've learned each language and you can think in those languages, then head to Israel where in one country you can here actual hebrew (find a mizrahi area as the ashkenazi dialect sounds off from correct flow) and actual arabic (druze or bedouine rather than west bank for the same reasons).
Again this is a Jewish perspective thread and not a Christian nor a Muslim perspective. But if if you need to discuss language then create a new thread for it and we can discuss it there.
This is causing me ,idk,fear.
A point the JW make,and a strong one at that,is that Jesus name wasn't likely pronounced Jesus either. But I asked Jews only.
Now regarding Allah,I thought Allah meant "G-d" in arabic?
Do Muslims actually use Allah as the JW do,as a name?
This is causing me ,idk,fear.
A point the JW make,and a strong one at that,is that Jesus name wasn't likely pronounced Jesus either. But I asked Jews only.
In English letters, Yeshua, which is normally translated as Joshua, and only in Greek is Iesus (Jesus).
In English letters, Yeshua, which is normally translated as Joshua, and only in Greek is Iesus (Jesus).
Ok,I understand that,thanks.
But what about the other strong point they have,that the name" Jehovah" distinguishes "the G-d of Abraham" from others who can be called "god" also?
I'm guessing they are talking about using the name to distinguish between "the G-D of Abraham" vs Zeus?
Oh boy,I'm realy confused. We are supposed to think of our relationship with G-D as him being or best friend or a loving parent?
Ok,I understand that,thanks.
But what about the other strong point they have,that the name" Jehovah" distinguishes "the G-d of Abraham" from others who can be called "god" also?
I'm guessing they are talking about using the name to distinguish between "the G-D of Abraham" vs Zeus?
Oh boy,I'm realy confused. We are supposed to think of our relationship with G-D as him being or best friend or a loving parent?
One important thing to remember here is that the JWs are attempting to distinguish themselves from the rest of Christendom - which they see as a dirty word - and from jews, who they believe lost their chosen people status when they "killed" Jesus. A close reading of the Gospels, Textual Criticism and historical analysis easily shows that it was the Romans who killed Jesus, but the JWs do not use modern scholarship and prefer to remain in the pre-modern era.
Their use of the Name is a way to distinguish themselves from the rest of Christendom - though they use an incorrect form of the Name, and don't realize that scholars have been using the Name in it's likely original usage for hundreds of years now. Even several main-stream Bibles used the Name consistently where appropriate - and that's important: the JWs insert the Name into the Greek New Testament, where it is never found, and use it to obscure certain passages that might hint at the divinity of Jesus.
I think it's clear that their use of the Name is merely to set them apart from others, and try to give themselves a ring of authenticity - so any reasons they give for their use of the name are suspect. They do say that they prefer to call God by his actual Name, and cite verses in support of this. Is this their actual reason for doing so? I don't believe so - simply because they use an incorrect version of the Name, they realize this and are not willing to amend the Name to a better version.
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